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Post by ben88 on Jan 30, 2008 14:35:01 GMT
with people talking about commens on another thread it got me thinking,
e.g.
if we sold pericard to plymouth for £500,000
with a 10% sell on clause
then agreed to buy him back for £1,00,000 a year later
would we then only have to pay £900,000?
or would the clause be void?
anyone
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Post by followyoudown on Jan 30, 2008 15:49:44 GMT
I think any half decent lawyer could get the clause and deal ruled void due to mental health issues if you were to pay a million for Pericard ;D
but hypothetically it would depend on whether the clubs negotiated the price excluding the 10% clause or including it so the answer is I guess either ! How they did it may be affected by tax issues.
This has already happened with Billy Sharp Sheff Utd to Scunthorpe (100k +25%) and then back for £2m ish
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Post by u2oxeterstokie on Jan 30, 2008 16:15:01 GMT
Questions not valid as we wouldn't get £500,000 for Pericard!!!
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Post by Onneravineet on Jan 30, 2008 16:32:16 GMT
If you sold Pericard to Plymouth for £500k you'd be given the keys to the City.. If you tried to then buy that moose back I'd linch you and turn you into his ARSE!
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Post by Deleted on Jan 30, 2008 16:40:41 GMT
Sorry, I got to “if we sold pericard to plymouth for £500,000” then fell of my chair………
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